Tuesday, June 21, 2016
The Orlando jihad vs Gun Control
I find it interesting that in the period from the end of WWII to the early 1980s there was only one major mass shooting, despite the wide availability of semi automatic rifles. While I am not opposed to any gun control at all if it would be effective, I don't the think the availability of guns is the driver of these mass killings. There are too many flaws in the theory. Why is Switzerland have a high rate of gun ownership but low crime? Why does Idaho have low gun crime despite high levels of gun ownership and why does Illinois have high levels of gun crime despite strict gun laws? France and Belgium have strict gun laws yet still were victims of mass killings. Why didn't the laws stop them?
Mass Murderers switch to other weapons Boston Marathon was a pressure cooker, Belgium airport was a bomb, Oklahoma city was fertilizer. A knife welding man killed 29 in China in 2014. Someone killed 6 with a knife in Chicago earlier this year. In Chiyoda in 2008 a guy drove his car into a crowd of people, got out and started stabbing people. Mostly in the US, people have used guns because they are available, but in the absence of guns, people will switch to other weapons if they want to kill. There are also would be negative side effects from the banning of all guns, e.g., the US has a very low rate of home invasion at night, compared to other countries.
The left often cites statistics of "gun deaths" or "gun crimes." Logic would say to look at overall crime, but this is spin. They ignore that criminals switch to other weapons while law abiding citizens are defenseless. Do they not consider that low burglary rate is due to gun ownership levels? Statistics like "gun deaths" also include suicide and people intent on suicide find a way.
If we don't find the real causes, we will be playing wack-a-mole banning one thing after another as murderers switch to other weapons. First we will ban AR-15s, then other black guns, then pressure cookers, then swords, then gasoline, etc.
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